Row 45373

Row ID: 45373 | Dataset Entry | Axioma AXP Content Repository

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This page contains data entry 45373 from the Axioma AXP content repository. The structured data below represents the complete record for this entry.

Lets hear the "socialist barista" perspective from the Fed:

> How a country’s wealth is divided among its population, also called wealth distribution, is a product of multiple factors including income, household savings, and **asset returns**. Recent measures reveal the wealthiest 1 percent of American households typically holds more than 30 percent of the country’s wealth – an imbalance that is significant and of particular interest to economists.

[What Is Wealth Distribution and Why Does It Matter?](https://www.clevelandfed.org/events/fedtalk/2023/ft-20231017-what-is-wealth-distribution-and-why-does-it-matter)

So if wealth distribution is of a particular interest to economists, per the Fed, and they say there is a significant imbalance, is that not exactly what this person's comment was saying?

> economy is very off center **[poor distribution/non-binomal]** and most of the money is going to the top and they invest.

I doesn't seem like a lazy comment and it's on topic to the NYTimes posted question - it is concise and to the point about what would cause the Dow to go to 40,000. It more-so seems like you are upset that this viewpoint is corroborated by data and it is validating a common "socialist barista" viewpoint held by the public and by some economists, so you are ultimately going to end up in political philosophy; economics is a **SOCIAL** science and wealth inequality is widely viewed as a cancer to capitalism at the philosophical level. Really begins to beg the question about what you're *actually* upset about, and I don't think it's the moderation of the forum, more likely it's about demeaning any narrative surround wealth inequality and how it's a massive fucking problem.

Capitalism, by definition, offers freedom to own and freedom to trade, so it rewards people for providing services/products that other people **with money** want. The system will work fine if you have a binomal distribution of money because goods/services are reaching the wants/needs of the largest segment of the population. If you do not have broad distribution of wealth, you cannot accurately articulate where demand actually is among a population; 99% of people can hate something, but if 1% really want a product and have infinite money, the market would say "that product is in demand", in spite of it not really being in demand.

FieldValue
text Lets hear the "socialist barista" perspective from the Fed: > How a country’s wealth is divided among its population, also called wealth distribution, is a product of multiple factors including income, household savings, and **asset returns**. Recent measures reveal the wealthiest 1 percent of American households typically holds more than 30 percent of the country’s wealth – an imbalance that is significant and of particular interest to economists. [What Is Wealth Distribution and Why Does It …
label r/economics
dataType comment
communityName r/Economics
datetime 2024-05-22
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Raw Record

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  "text": "Lets hear the \"socialist barista\" perspective from the Fed:\n\n> How a country’s wealth is divided among its population, also called wealth distribution, is a product of multiple factors including income, household savings, and **asset returns**. Recent measures reveal the wealthiest 1 percent of American households typically holds more than 30 percent of the country’s wealth – an imbalance that is significant and of particular interest to economists.\n\n[What Is Wealth Distribution and Why Does It Matter?](https://www.clevelandfed.org/events/fedtalk/2023/ft-20231017-what-is-wealth-distribution-and-why-does-it-matter)\n\nSo if wealth distribution is of a particular interest to economists, per the Fed, and they say there is a significant imbalance, is that not exactly what this person's comment was saying?\n\n> economy is very off center **[poor distribution/non-binomal]** and most of the money is going to the top and they invest.\n\nI doesn't seem like a lazy comment and it's on topic to the NYTimes posted question - it is concise and to the point about what would cause the Dow to go to 40,000.  It more-so seems like you are upset that this viewpoint is corroborated by data and it is validating a common \"socialist barista\" viewpoint held by the public and by some economists, so you are ultimately going to end up in political philosophy; economics is a **SOCIAL** science and wealth inequality is widely viewed as a cancer to capitalism at the philosophical level.  Really begins to beg the question about what you're *actually* upset about, and I don't think it's the moderation of the forum, more likely it's about demeaning any narrative surround wealth inequality and how it's a massive fucking problem.\n\nCapitalism, by definition, offers freedom to own and freedom to trade, so it rewards people for providing services/products that other people **with money** want.  The system will work fine if you have a binomal distribution of money because goods/services are reaching the wants/needs of the largest segment of the population.  If you do not have broad distribution of wealth, you cannot accurately articulate where demand actually is among a population; 99% of people can hate something, but if 1% really want a product and have infinite money, the market would say \"that product is in demand\", in spite of it not really being in demand.",
  "label": "r/economics",
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